(disclaimer: formatting all off because i emailed this in)
I was asked to write a response to a question emailed to the professor
I am interning for right now (my, what sytax!), and since I spent this
much time on it, I thought I would post it as well. The question is on
Matt 1:16, for which there is a variant that could be read as denying
the virgin birth and affirming Joseph as Jesus' biological father.
This is what I do in grad school. (The question answering, not the
blogging).
RE: Virgin Conception Observations & Questions
Dear Mr. C,
I am an intern of Dr. W and he has asked me to answer this
question (or at the very least to try!). First of all, let me
compliment you on the research you have already put into this
question. I know many fellow seminary students who wouldn't have put
in this much time; it is clearly a testament to your faithfulness.
As you noted yourself, there are any number of sources to go to when
trying to understand the biblical doctrine of the virgin birth, and
especially the early church's stance on this miraculous event. In
accordance with your particular question to Dr. W, I will
concentrate on the value of the external evidence presented by the
Syriac witness containing the variant reading (1) 'Jacob begot Joseph;
Joseph, to whom was betrothed Mary the virgin, begot Jesus who is
called the Christ.'
This is, of course, one of three extant readings. The vast majority of
Greek witnesses, regardless of time period or geography, as well as
all the versions (except for two Syriac witnesses and the Old Latin)
go with (2) 'and Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus
was born, who is called Christ.' A third possibility is a reading
found in a few Greek witnesses and the Old Latin: (3) 'and Jacob begot
Joseph, to whom being betrothed the virgin Mary bore Jesus, who is
called Christ.'
In the first place, let's take up your main question: the validity of
the Syriac witness. As far as antiquity goes, the Syriac translation
generally goes back to about A.D. 200. The witness in question here
(the Sinaitic Syriac) is a palimpsest (that is, a document written
over at some point, but having left enough evidence behind to decipher
despite that) from the late 4th century (putting it later than such
Greek witnesses as Papyrus P1 or Codices Vaticanus and Sinaiticus). If
it were the case that the Syriac version were uniform in its
representation of this variant, it would be a good bet that the
reading goes back to A.D. 200. However, the Syriac is actually split
in the case of this reading.
The Curetonian Syriac (sy C) goes with possibility (3). The Peshitta
(sy P) and the Harklean (sy H) each confirm possibility (2). The
Sinaitic Syriac (sy S, the manuscript you are asking about explicitly)
appears completely on its own in this case, diluting its value and
making it quite difficult to affirm as containing the original
reading. Let me put it another way. To affirm that the Sinaitic Syriac
has the original reading in this place, we would have to assume three
things: that the Sinaitic Syriac is reliable in replicating its
predecessor translation, that the predecessor translation is a
reliable and literal translation of its Greek witness, and finally
that that particular Greek witness is a reliable representation of the
original. Without even taking into account the unlikelihoods of this
one particular manuscript containing the original against other Syriac
witnesses or of the corruption of such early Greek witnesses as Codex
Sinaiticus or Codex Vaticanus, we can see that holding to the Syriac
witness as the lone container of the original reading is an
intellectual tight rope at best.
In the second place, even if the Syriac did have the original reading
here, the text as a whole still affirms the virgin birth. In the same
verse, the Sinaitic Syriac speaks of the "virgin" Mary. Its next seven
verses relate Luke's account of the virgin birth. More than likely,
the variants arising in this verse are not due to an alternate
tradition denying Christ's virgin birth; they have more probably
arisen due to either unintentional scribal error (reading (1)
reproduces the generic genealogical formula of the previous fourteen
verses) or an intentional attempt to protect Mary's virginity
(removing the word "husband" as both readings (1) and (3) do).
Though there may certainly be reasons to question the early
understanding of the virgin birth, it seems unlikely that any argument
could be made on textual grounds. I am sorry you have lost much of
your previous research and work due to a computer crash (I know that
particular pain), and so I'd like to point you to a few sources that
might be helpful as you attempt to rebuild your notes:
Leon Morris, The Gospel According to Matthew
Raymond E. Brown, The Birth of the Messiah (pp. 61-64 particularly for
the Matt 1:16 problem)
J. Gresham Machen, The Virgin Birth of Christ (especially pp. 176-187)
Bruce M. Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (pp.
2-6, under Matt 1:16 reference)
Rich Elliott, A Site Inspired by The Encyclopedia of New Testament
Textual Criticism, http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/
Again, I'd like to compliment you on your work in attempting to answer
this question, and encourage you that as Christians, not only should
we feel free to pursue the truth, it is our duty to do so fervently.
As I wrote above, that you've come this far in attempting to answer
this question is indicative of your strong faith rather than a cynical
skepticism. I hope this answer helps you out as you move along in your
pursuit.
All the best,
Tim Ricchuiti